IBPS Clerks Prelims Model Paper-I

Directions (Q.1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

India is a great book producing nation and has a vibrant world of book publishing spread throughout the vast country in a number of modern languages most of which have their roots in Sanskrit, the mother of Indian languages. In terms of numbers, there are more than 16,000 publishers in India publishing 90,000 titles annually in 24 languages, out of which 18 are highly developed, to fulfill the needs of this multilingual nation. These languages have a galaxy of good authors, their own publishers and readers of books within their own area as well as spread out in the entire country. Today Indian publishing is one of the greatest in the world and can be counted among the first seven publishing nations. We are the third largest publishers of English language Books after the US and UK. India is the third biggest market for English publications with almost 12,000 publishers that publish around 90,000 titles a year in more than 18 languages. India’s main publishing is in the Indian languages. In India, every year a world level Book fair is held in New Delhi, which is India’s oldest book fair. Delhi Book Fair is playing a pivotal role in reiterating the might of the pen and the printed word and has come to be recognized as the biggest annual cultural event and book bonanza keenly awaited by students, teachers, scholars, authors, intellectuals, librarians and book lovers. First New Delhi World Book Fair was held in around 6790 sq. meter area with 200 participants from March 18 to April 4, 1972. It was inaugurated by Shri V.V. Giri President of India. This biennial event takes place in early February, and is organized by the National Book Trust, India (NET). Delhi Book Fair has evolved over the years as a highly popular conduit to the world of books and publishers and distributors. The ever increasing numbers of visitors and exhibitors speaks volumes of its success. The fair provides a unique platform for business-to-business transactions, establishing new contacts, entering into co-publishing arrangements, translation and copyright arrangements, reprinting of old and rare books. The visitor profile at the fair includes national and International publishers, librarians, researchers, academicians, writers, students and book lovers. Publishers also introduced “e-Books” in this fair. This focus is being given especially keeping in mind the increasing number of IT-sawy younger generation with a penchant for internet, mobile phones and other reader-friendly digital gizmos. E-books and e-publishing both has their obvious advantages though authors in India have only just begun to realize the immense benefits digital technology can be of in this field. Also, with the country being the third biggest publisher – after the US and UK – the potential in this field is immense and the response too has been quite encouraging so far with a lot of publishers already showing interest in e- publishing. E-publishing is a boon for both established and wannabe writers as it is cost effective and cuts down the time it take for a book to reach markets to about a fourth of what it would have taken had it been left to publishers to do the job. Other benefits include authors now have a worldwide audience to their book which means better business while debugging or carrying out revisions too is a lot less hazardous. Another interesting development to have occurred in recent times is the launch of Amazon e-book store in the country as well as the availability of the Kindle range of e-book readers. Needless to say, a direct fallout of the renewed push that e-book are getting is increased sale of eBook readers and tablet devices.

1-Who had inaugurated the first New Delhi World Book Fair?

(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Chief of NBT
(D) President of India
(E) None of these

2. Which is not a feature of Delhi Book fair?

(A) B-2-B
(B) Co-publishing arrangements
(C) Availability of rare books
(D) E – Books
(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is false in the context of given passage?

(A) People have only craze of variety of Books in the fair not for offer and cash cow.
(B) New Delhi book fair has completed more than 40 years of its success.
(C) After US and UK, India has maintained its place in the list of largest publishers of English Language Books.
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these

4. What do you understand by ‘E-books’?

(A) An electronic version of only online magazines and books of foreign writers.
(B) An electronic version of a printed book.
(C) A shortened form of a printed book.
(D) Both (1) and (2)
(E) None of these

5. In which of the following language is India’s main epic are available?

(A) Hindi
(B) Urdu
(C) Sanskrit
(D) Bilingual i.e., in Hindi and English
(E) None of these

Direction (Q. 6- 10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
6. In modern times, the concept of (1)/ Rule of law has become the chief characteristic (2)/ Of most of the democratic states (3)/ Such as USA and India. (4)/ No error (5).

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

7.The Idea of superiority (1)/ of Greek states than all other forms of government (2)/ lost importance when Alexander conquered (3)/ the East and the West. (4)/ No error (5).

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

8. The rights which the law of nature gives (1)/ to every individual and which is inalienable (2)1 are those which could not be (3)/ taken away by any person. (4)/ No error (5).

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

9. One should have a sense of gratitude (1)/ so that the benefactor does (2)/not has reasonable cause (3)/to repent him for his good will. (4)1 No error (5).

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

10. Seeking pleasure or avoidance of (1)/ pain would be to low or base (2)1 a goal of life for (3)/ human beings to fix. (4)/ No error (5).

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Direction (Q. 11 – 15): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) It had no independent existence of its own.
(B) But the condition changed when Christianity began to strike roots in the minds of the intelligentsia and especially
when it became the official religion of the Roman Empire.
(C) Prior to the rise of Christianity, the spiritual power was merged into the temporal.
(D) But the secular rulers were not ready to be deprived of the power of the control over the Church.
(E) The king performed the role of the priest.
(F) Hence the controversy raged itself.
11. Which of the following sentences will come FIRST after rearrangement?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

12. Which of the following sentences will come SECOND after rearrangement?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

13. Which of the following sentences will come FIFTH after rearrangement?

(A) C
(B) D
(C) B
(D) F
(E) E

14. Which of the following sentences will come THIRD after rearrangement?

(A) D
(B) B
(C) A
(D) E
(E) C

15. Which of the following sentences will come LAST after rearrangement?

(A) C
(B) B
(C) D
(D) E
(E) F

Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of these questions, two sentences .(I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it five words. 1),2), 3), 4), and 5) are suggested. Out of these, one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.
16. I. She has begun to show a great …………in politics.
II. It might ……. you to know that I didn’t accept the job.

(A) choice
(B) favour
(C) interest
(D) deal
(E) experience

17. I. The booklets ………you through the process of starting your own business
II. The …… scheme will run for six months.

(A) teaching
(B) pilot
(C) test
(D) embolden
(E) drive

18. I. She pulled to the right with a ……..
II. If you are going to sneeze and …. at night, we’ll never get any sleep.

(A) steering
(B) honk
(C) scream
(D) strike
(E) friend

19.1…….you work hard, you won’t be able to clear even the preliminary exam.
II. ……. you change and become like little children, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.

(A) If
(B) Until
(C) Unless
(D) Lest
(E) Whether

20.1. At least 50 people died when a bus ……..into a river.
II. Japan’s banks are in trouble because of bad loans and because the stock market

(A) dived
(B) plunged
(C) downed
(D) fell
(E) submerged

Directions (Q. 21-30): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These blanks are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A report by the Comptroller and Auditor General ..(21).. mining in Goa ..(22).. thanks to .(23).. between official the Directorate of Mines, Indian Bureau of Mines and politicians in the state. The report ..(24).. Nationalist Congress party leaders Jitender Deshprabhu of doing illegal ..(25).. of ore at Sattari, ..(26).. the deep ..(27).. of politicians in the ..(28).. CAG has ..(29).. ..(30).. the mining activities of Sanguem.
21.

(A) deep
(B) illegal
(C) one
(D) revives
(E) dangerous

22

(A) thrives
(B) survives
(C) revives
(D) drives
(E) highlights

23

(A) relation
(B) understanding
(C) collusion
(D) bitterness
(E) controversy

24

(A) praises
(B) admires
(C) reveals
(D) accuses
(E) focuses

25

(A) pulling
(B) extraction
(C) detraction
(D) concentration
(E) selling

26

(A) forecasting
(B) spreading
(C) revealing
(D) discussing
(E) talking

27

(A) engagement
(B) threatening
(C) compromise
(D) connivance
(E) involvement

28

(A) incident
(B) accident
(C) event
(D) scam
(E) case

29

(A) recommended
(B) promulgated
(C) forecast
(D) aired
(E) announced

30

(A) vigilance
(B) monitoring
(C) surveillance
(D) watching
(E) survey

31. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DEVELOPMENT each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) in the word in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

32. In a certain code, BEAUTY is written as $ # ? % 75 and TRULY is written as 7 @% # β 5. How would ALBERT be written in that code?

(A) ?%@ β7
(B) @ β%#?
(C) # β $ ? 7
(D) ? β$#@7
(E) None of these

33. The position of how many digits in the number 6947385 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in ascending order? (from left to right)

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

34. In the five groups of letters, one is different from the rest. Find the odd one out.

(A) Pa Re
(B) Qie T
(C) Ra ke
(D) Pue S
(E) Mst P

35. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, sixth, eighth and tenth letters of the word CONSISTENT, the second letter from the left is your answer. If no such word can be formed, your answer is X; and if more than one such word can be formed, your answer is Y.

(A) X
(B) Y
(C) S
(D) T
(E) E

Directions (Q. 36 – 40)
: Study the following information to answer the given questions. In a certain code, ‘strong financial economy1 is written as ‘mo tic su’, ‘financial inclusion needed’ is written as, ‘da ra su’, and ‘economy crisis inclusion’ is written as, ‘ye da mo’.
36. What is the code for ‘financial’?

(A) da
(B) su
(C) mo
(D) ra
(E) Can’t be determined

37. What does ‘tic’ stand for?

(A) economy
(B) financial
(C) strong
(D) needed
(E) Either economy or strong

38. Which of the following is the code for ‘economy inclusion’?

(A) da mo
(B) da ra
(C) ye mo
(D) su da
(E) su ye

39. Which of the following is represented by ye tic ra’?

(A) strong crisis economy
(B) strong inclusion economy
(C) crisis inclusion strong
(D) strong crisis needed
(E) None of these

40. Which of the following is a possible code for ‘economy needed recovery’?

(A) ra za mo
(B) mo ra ye
(C) su za ra
(D) ye su mo
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 41-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around circular table. All are facing the centre. T sits on the immediate right of Q, who is facing Z, R and T cannot be immediate neighbours of each other, P is an immediate neighbour of V, who sits on the immediate left of R, V and W cannot sit opposite each other.
41. Who is facing S?

(A) V
(B) R
(C) Q
(D) P
(E) Can’t be determined

42. Assuming P to be the first person and moving clockwise, who occupies the fifth position?

(A) R
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) S
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) T is sitting third to the left of V.
(B) W is sitting fourth to the right of Q.
(C) R is sitting opposite T.
(D) V is sitting third to the right of W.
(E) None is true

44. If each person interchanges his position with the person “sitting opposite him, who will be on the immediate right of S?

(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) Z
(E) None of these

45. Who sits fifth to the left of Z?

(A) T
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 46 – 50): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and give answer:
46. A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits on the immediate right of C?
I. Only A sits between B and E.
II. B sits on the immediate right of D

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

47. Who among A, B, C and D is the heaviest?
I. C is lighter than only B
II. C is heavier than A, who is the lightest, and lighter than B, who is not the heaviest.

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

48. Who is towards the north-east of Tanu?
I. Manu is towards the north of Tanu. Ritu I and Neetu are towards the east and west; of Manu respectively.
II. Anu is towards the north and west of Tanu .’ and Tinku respectively.

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

49. How is P related to S?
I. R, who is the wife of P, is the younger daughter of J.
II. S is the mother of T, who is the younger brother of R.

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

50. What is the code for ‘tasty’ in a code language?
I. ‘tasty yummy fruity’ is written as ‘mo ni ka’ and ‘always love ice cream’ is written as ‘tic die ra’.
II. ‘fruity is always tasty’ is written as ‘ni su tic mo’.

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (Q. 51- 55) : In each question below ; are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given ‘statements to be true even if variance with ‘commonly known facts and then ; decide which of the given conclusion from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
51. Statements: All cats are dogs.
Some dogs are pets.
No pet is black.
Conclusions: I. At least some cats are pets.
II. Some dogs may be black

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

52. Statements: All cats are dogs.
Some dogs are pets.
No pet is black.
Conclusions: I. Some pets being cats is a possibility.
II. No cat is black.

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

53. Statements: Some books are pencils.
No pencil is a pen.
: Some pens are copies.
Conclusions: I At least some books are not pens.
II. No pencil is a copy.

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

54. Statements: Some books are pencils.
No pencil is a pen.
Some pens are copies.
Conclusions: I. At least some books are copies.
II. Some copies being pencils is a possibility.

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

55. Statements: All grapes are oranges.
All oranges are tasty.
Conclusions:I. All oranges are grapes.
II All grapes can never be tasty.

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Directions (Q. 56-60) : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow: A, B, C, D, E, and F are six teachers. Each teacher teaches a different subject, viz Hindi, English, Maths, History, Botany and Physics, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them like a different fruit, viz Apple, Grapes, Orange, Mango, Guava and banana, but not necessarily in the same order. C likes Apple but-does not teaches either Botany or History E, who teaches English, does not like either Guava or Mango. B likes Grapes and teaches History. The one who teaches Math’s likes Orange D likes Mango and A teaches Physics.
56. Who likes Orange?

(A) C
(B) F
(C) A
(D) E
(E) None of these

57. Which of the following subjects does C teach?

(A) English
(B) Botany
(C) Physics
(D) Hindi
(E) None of these

58. Who likes Banana-?

(A) E
(B) D
(C) B
(D) F
(E) None of these

59. Which of the following fruits does A like?

(A) Guava
(B) Grapes
(C) Orange
(D) Mango
(E) None of these

60. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(A) C – Botany – Apple
(B) B – Hindi – Grapes
(C) D – Botany – Mango
(D) A – Physics – Banana
(E) None is correct

Directions (Q.61 – 65) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Meenakshi, Monika, Akshay, Maya, Rohit, Sonali, Saurabh and Rohan are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
Two females sit in the middle of the sides and two at the corners. Meenakshi sits second to the left of Saurabh. Saurabh sits in the middle of one of the sides. Akshay sits fourth to the right of his wife and his wife is not an immediate neighbour of Meenakshi or Saurabh. Monika sits third to the right of her husband. Monika does not sit at any of the corners. Only Maya sits between Monika and Rohan. Rohan is the husband of Meenakshi. Rohit is a male.
61. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(A) No two males are immediate neighbours of each other
(B) Saurabh and Rohan do not face each other in the seating arrangement
(C) Rohit and Maya are immediate neighbours of each other
(D) Sonali is a male and sits diagonally opposite to Rohit
(E) Meenakshi sits in the centre of one of the sides of the square table

62. Who amongst the following is Monika’s husband?

(A) Akshay
(B) Rohan
(C) Rohit
(D) Sonali
(E) cannot be determined

63. How many people sit between Monika and Akshay when counted in anticlockwise direction from Monika?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

64. Who amongst the following is the wife of Akshay?

(A) Maya
(B) Sonali
(C) Monika
(D) Meenakshi
(E) Cannot be determined

65. What is the position of Rohit with respect to Akshay?

(A) Immediate left
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Immediate right
(E) Second to the right

Directions (Q. 66-80): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
66. $latex \frac{?} { 69 x 26} &s=2 $ = 754

(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2001
(D) 2007
(E) None of these

67. 1712*174 =?

(A) 1716
(B) 1748
(C) 178
(D) 173
(E) None of these

68. 556.65 + 65.65 + 56.65 = ?

(A) 676.05
(B) 678.95
(C) 682.55
(D) 684.85
(E) None of these

69. $latex \frac{3328 }{ (64 * 0.80)} &s=2 $ = ?

(A) 63
(B) 68
(C) 65
(D) 71
(E) None of these

5 $latex \frac{3}{5}*2\frac{6}{7} &s=2 $=?

(A) 13
(B) 17
(C) 21
(D) 25
(E) None of these

71. 801÷10÷0.45 = ?

(A) 172
(B) 178
(C) 174
(D) 176
(E) None of these

72. 56% of 616- ?%of 482 = 103.96

(A) 40
(B) 52
(C) 45
(D) 50
(E) None of these

73. 6.8 * 8.8 * 11.9 – 202.596 = ?

(A) 510.5
(B) 509.5
(C) 508.5
(D) 507.5
(E) None of these

74.33.03*5.5 + 18.95 = ?

(A) 199.665
(B) 200.605
(C) 200.615
(D) 200.665
(E) None of these

75.4785-3249 + 2156 = ?

(A) 3692
(B) 3962
(C) 3792
(D) 3782
(E) None of these

76. 28% of 750 = ? % of 500

(A) 35
(B) 42
(C) 48
(D) 38
(E) None of these

77.456 +24 + 324*17 = ?

(A) 5525
(B) 5725
(C) 5727
(D) 5427
(E) None of these

78. $latex 23\frac { 8 }{ 9 }+15\frac { 7}{ 9 }-12 \frac{1}{3}*\frac{2}{3} &s=2 $

(A) 30$latex \frac{1}{3} &s=2 $
(B) 31$latex \frac{1}{3} &s=2 $
(C) 30 $latex \frac{4}{9} &s=2 $
(D) 31 $latex \frac{4}{9} &s=2 $
(E) None of these

79.99 ÷9÷0.5=?

(A) 28
(B) 34
(C) 22
(D) 37
(E) None of these

80. 2205 ÷ (14×2.5) = ?

(A) 63
(B) 77
(C) 72
(D) 81
(E) None of these

Directions (Q.81-85): The following table provides information about the number of students applied for CGL examination from 5 different states in different 4 years. Study, the, table carefully and answer the following questions. [supsystic-tables id=’3′]
81. Find the difference of average number of students applied for CGL exam from 2005 to 2007 from Delhi and the average number of students applied for CGL exam from 2007 to 2009 from Gujrat?

(A) 990
(B) 330
(C) 110
(D) 90
(E) None of these

82. Number of students in 2009 from Haryana forms what percent of total number of students applied from Haryana in all years together?

(A) 19.80%
(B) 20.80%
(C) 21.80%
(D) 22.80%
(E) 23.80%

83. Find the percentage increase in total number of students applied in 2009 as compared to previous years?

(A) 0.85%
(B) 0.95%
(C) 1.75%
(D) 1.85%
(E) 1.95%

84. If 36% of students qualified from UP in the CGL exam over the years and afterwards 5/27 of them passed the interview and got the job. Then find the total number of students from over these years who got the job?

(A) 350
(B) 275
(C) 225
(D) 245
(E) None of these

85. If 20% of the total students applied in all five years together from Gujarat passed the interview but 1/6th of them were disqualified due to several reasons, then the number of disqualified candidates from Gujarat in ail five years is what percent of total number of students applied from UP from 2007 to 2009?

(A) 5(7/24)%
(B) 5(11/24)%
(C) 7(1/11)%
(D) 9(1/11)%
(E) None of these

Directions (Q.86 – 90): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
86. 334, 839, 1849, 3869, 7909, ?

(A) 15579
(B) 15739
(C) 15989
(D) 16109
(E) 17567

87. 14175, 3150, 900, 360, 240, ?

(A) 480
(B) 520
(C) 560
(D) 600
(E) 215

88.4096,1024,256,64,16,?

(A) 12
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these

89.8,36,184,916,4584?

(A) 22716
(B) 22916
(C) 23116
(D) 233316
(E) 19900

90.4,48,180,448,900,?

(A) 2164
(B) 1924
(C) 1744
(D) 1584
(E) 2000

91 .The average of 8 numbers is 20. The aver- ; age of first two numbers is 15(1/2) and that of the next three is 21(1/3). The sixth number is less than the 7th and 8th number by 4 and 7 respectively. Then find the 8th number.

(A) 17
(B) 25
(C) 19
(D) 20
(E) None of these

92. The ratio of number of boys to that of girls in a group becomes 2:1, when 15 girls leave. But afterwards when 45 boys also leave, this ratio becomes 1 : 5. Originally the number of girls in the group was……..

(A) 40
(B) 42
(C) 45
(D) 48
(E) None of these

93. The cost of 9 kg apple is Rs.360. What is the cost of 13 kg apples at the same rate?

(A) Rs.500
(B) Rs.515
(C) Rs.530
(D) Rs.520
(E) None of these

94. Rahul scored 12 marks more than Tanvi. If the ratio of the score of Tanvi to that of Rahul is 3 : 4, what is the sum of their scores?

(A) 96
(B) 72
(C) 84
(D) 108
(E) None of these

95. The present ages of Reena and Usha are 24 years and 36 years respectively. What was the ratio of the age of Usha to that of Reena eight years ago?

(A) 7:04
(B) 4:07
(C) 11 : 8
(D) 8:11
(E) None of these

96. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “TASTE” be arranged?

(A) 120
(B) 80
(C) 60
(D) 40
(E) None of these

97. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6723. Find the greater number.

(A) 89
(B) 85
(C) 91
(D) 81
(E) None of these

98. The difference between 31% of a number and 13% of the same number’ is 576. What is 17% of that number?

(A) 544
(B) 457
(C) 561
(D) 574
(E) None of these

99. A car covers a distance of 690 km in 30 hours. What is the average speed of the car?

(A) 25km/hr
(B) 23 km/hr
(C) 20 km/hr
(D) 18km/hr
(E) None of these

100. The average age of a man and his son is 40 years. The ratio of their age is 11 : 5. What is the age of the son?

(A) 28yr
(B) 14yr
(C) 21 yr
(D) 32 yr
(E) None of these